HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

Questions 72

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Medicare. Title XVII of the Social Security Act of 1965 created the Medicare Program to provide medical insurance for individuals who are 65 years or older, disabled, or have permanent kidney failure. Medicare is the appropriate agency to refer a 66-year-old woman who is retiring and losing her employment-based health insurance. Choice A, the Woman, Infants, and Children program, is not suitable for this scenario as it provides assistance for low-income pregnant women, breastfeeding women, and young children. Choice B, Medicaid, is a program that helps individuals with low income and resources cover medical costs, which may not be applicable to this woman's situation. Choice D, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision, known as COBRA, allows employees to continue their group health insurance coverage after leaving their job but may not be the best option for this woman in this case.

Question 2 of 5

An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker over time. What is the best initial response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse should be to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This open-ended question allows the nurse to gather valuable information directly from the client, aiding in assessing the situation accurately and formulating an appropriate care plan. Choice A is incorrect as assuming muscle weakness is an expected occurrence with aging without further assessment may overlook potential underlying issues. Choice B is premature as it jumps straight to physical examination without first gathering subjective data. Choice C is unnecessary at this point as reviewing diagnostic test results should come after initial assessment and data collection from the client.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a history of congestive heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed is crucial in improving oxygenation in clients with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath by reducing venous return to the heart and decreasing fluid overload in the lungs. This intervention helps to alleviate the client's breathing difficulty. Administering diuretic therapy (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important but should come after ensuring proper positioning. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice D) is essential but is not the first intervention needed for a client experiencing respiratory distress.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client with severe constipation. Which position is most appropriate for the client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sims' position with the right leg flexed is the most appropriate position for administering an enema to a client with severe constipation. This position helps in promoting the flow of the enema solution into the rectum and facilitates the evacuation of stool. Supine position with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice A) is not ideal for administering an enema as it does not facilitate the flow of the solution. Left lateral position with the right leg flexed (Choice B) is not the best choice for administering an enema. Prone position with the head turned to the side (Choice D) is also not suitable for administering an enema as it does not assist in the proper administration and retention of the solution.

Question 5 of 5

Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

Similar Questions

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for HESI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your HESI-RN exam.

Call to Action Image