HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Medicare. Title XVII of the Social Security Act of 1965 created the Medicare Program to provide medical insurance for individuals who are 65 years or older, disabled, or have permanent kidney failure. Medicare is the appropriate agency to refer a 66-year-old woman who is retiring and losing her employment-based health insurance. Choice A, the Woman, Infants, and Children program, is not suitable for this scenario as it provides assistance for low-income pregnant women, breastfeeding women, and young children. Choice B, Medicaid, is a program that helps individuals with low income and resources cover medical costs, which may not be applicable to this woman's situation. Choice D, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision, known as COBRA, allows employees to continue their group health insurance coverage after leaving their job but may not be the best option for this woman in this case.
Question 2 of 5
A 35-year-old female client has just been admitted to the post-anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a partial thyroidectomy, the client may be advised to avoid eating seafood due to its high iodine content, which can affect the thyroid function. Choice A is incorrect because after a partial thyroidectomy, supplemental hormonal therapy may be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the thyroid does not regenerate after a partial thyroidectomy. Choice D is incorrect; the remaining portion of the thyroid is not typically removed at a later date unless there are specific medical reasons to do so.
Question 3 of 5
A female client has been taking a high dose of prednisone, a corticosteroid, for several months. After stopping the medication abruptly, the client reports feeling 'very tired'. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to measure vital signs. Abrupt withdrawal of exogenous corticosteroids can precipitate adrenal insufficiency, potentially leading to shock. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in identifying any signs of adrenal insufficiency, such as hypotension or tachycardia. Auscultating breath sounds (choice B) may be important in other situations, such as respiratory conditions, but it is not the priority in this case. Palpating the abdomen (choice C) and observing the skin for bruising (choice D) are not directly related to the potential complications of corticosteroid withdrawal and adrenal insufficiency.
Question 4 of 5
Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.
Question 5 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a hemodialysis session. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for hemodialysis. High potassium levels can lead to cardiac complications such as arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the healthcare provider before the procedure to prevent any potential serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the context of preparing for a hemodialysis session. Serum potassium levels above 6.0 mEq/L require immediate attention to ensure patient safety.
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