HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.
Question 2 of 5
What assessment technique should the nurse use to monitor a client for a common untoward effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inspection of the mouth. This assessment technique is crucial for monitoring gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect of phenytoin. Bladder palpation (choice A) is not relevant to monitoring for phenytoin's side effects. Blood glucose monitoring (choice C) is important for clients with diabetes but is not specifically related to phenytoin. Auscultation of breath sounds (choice D) is more relevant for assessing respiratory conditions, not side effects of phenytoin.
Question 3 of 5
A client is taught how to collect a 24-hour urine specimen. Which statement indicates understanding of the procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct way to collect a 24-hour urine specimen is to discard the first morning void and then start the collection. Choice A is incorrect because refrigeration is not typically necessary for a 24-hour urine specimen. Choice B is incorrect as the client needs to discard the first void. Choice C is incorrect; while collecting urine for 24 hours is correct, keeping it on ice is not standard procedure.
Question 4 of 5
A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale of 3 indicates severe neurological impairment, suggesting a deep coma or even impending death. This client's condition is critical, and he has a very poor prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because a GCS of 3 does not directly indicate increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as a GCS of 3 signifies a grave neurological status. Choice C is incorrect as a GCS of 3 represents a state of unconsciousness rather than being conscious but disoriented.
Question 5 of 5
A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic and manage blood glucose levels, the client should take the Zithromax two hours after eating. Option A is incorrect because obtaining a new breakfast tray is not necessary to administer the missed dose. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic. Option D is incorrect because providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation.
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