Practice TEAS Science Test

Questions 61

ATI TEAS 7

ATI TEAS 7 Test Bank

Practice TEAS Science Test Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgG. IgG is the only antibody that can cross the placenta due to its smaller size and ability to bind to neonatal Fc receptors. This allows for passive immunity to be transferred from mother to fetus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal secretions, IgD functions as a B cell receptor, and IgM is primarily involved in the primary immune response. IgG is the most abundant antibody in the circulation and plays a crucial role in protecting the fetus from infections.

Question 2 of 5

What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To transport oxygen and nutrients. The cardiovascular system is responsible for circulating blood throughout the body to deliver oxygen and nutrients to tissues and organs. This function supports cell metabolism and overall body function. Choice B is incorrect because while the cardiovascular system does play a role in blood pressure regulation, it is not its primary function. Choice C is incorrect as digestion is primarily carried out by the digestive system. Choice D is incorrect as waste filtration is mainly performed by the excretory system.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgG. IgG is the only antibody that can cross the placenta due to its smaller size and ability to bind to neonatal Fc receptors. This allows for passive immunity to be transferred from mother to fetus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal secretions, IgD functions as a B cell receptor, and IgM is primarily involved in the primary immune response. IgG is the most abundant antibody in the circulation and plays a crucial role in protecting the fetus from infections.

Question 4 of 5

Which part of the nervous system controls the 'fight or flight' response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sympathetic nervous system. This system is responsible for activating the 'fight or flight' response in situations of stress or danger. It triggers physiological changes such as increased heart rate, dilation of pupils, and release of adrenaline. The central nervous system (A) includes the brain and spinal cord but doesn't directly control this response. The peripheral nervous system (B) includes nerves outside the brain and spinal cord but doesn't specifically regulate 'fight or flight'. The autonomic nervous system (C) includes both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, with the sympathetic division being the one involved in the 'fight or flight' response.

Question 5 of 5

How many molecules of NADPH and ATP are required to reduce 6 molecules of CO2 to glucose via photosynthesis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 12 NADPH and 18 ATP. In the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis, each molecule of CO2 requires 2 NADPH and 3 ATP for reduction to glucose. Therefore, to reduce 6 molecules of CO2, you would need 6 x 2 = 12 NADPH and 6 x 3 = 18 ATP. This is why choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D have incorrect combinations of NADPH and ATP that do not match the stoichiometry of the Calvin cycle for the reduction of CO2 to glucose.

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