HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a tumor refuses surgery, but the client's partner wants it. Which is the deciding factor in determining if the surgery will be done?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client's understanding of the risks involved in refusing the surgery is crucial in determining the course of action. In this scenario, the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity take precedence. Choice A is not directly relevant to the decision-making process regarding surgery. Choice C, religious beliefs, may influence the decision but should not be the determining factor in this case. Choice D involving the facility's ethical committee is not typically involved in individual patient care decisions.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client's serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the physician, and the physician prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level. Which food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is processed oat cereals. Processed oat cereals are often high in sodium content, which should be avoided in cases of hypernatremia. Peas, cauliflower, and low-fat yogurt are generally low in sodium and are not typically contraindicated in hypernatremia. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
Question 4 of 5
A client with DM has an above-knee amputation because of severe peripheral vascular disease. Two days following surgery, when preparing the client for dinner, what is the nurse's primary responsibility?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's serum glucose level. In a client with diabetes who just had surgery, monitoring the serum glucose level is crucial to ensure proper management of the condition. This helps in preventing complications related to blood sugar fluctuations. Assisting the client out of bed may be important but not the primary responsibility at this time. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position or ensuring the residual limb is elevated are important interventions for comfort and circulation but are not the primary concern in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
When developing an educational program for staff regarding a new intravenous pump, what is the correct sequence of actions for a nurse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence of actions when developing an educational program for staff regarding a new intravenous pump is to first identify what skills to teach the staff members. This step is essential as it sets the foundation for the learning objectives to be developed next. Once the learning objectives are established, scheduling several sessions of the program can be planned accordingly. Finally, after the program has been conducted, program evaluation with staff members should take place to assess the effectiveness of the educational program. Therefore, options A, C, and D are out of sequence, making them incorrect choices.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for HESI-LPN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your HESI-LPN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access