HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Wilms' tumor is a type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. The correct answer is A: Renal cancer. This tumor originates in the kidneys and is most commonly found in children, with the peak incidence around 3-4 years of age. Choice B, Liver cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor specifically involves the kidneys, not the liver. Choice C, Basal cell carcinoma, is a form of skin cancer, not related to Wilms' tumor. Choice D, Brain cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor is not associated with the brain but rather with the kidneys.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the future, new nurses may see opportunities in transitional care. Transitional care involves the coordination and continuity of healthcare during a movement from one healthcare setting to another. This type of care is increasingly important in today's healthcare landscape due to the focus on improving patient outcomes and reducing hospital readmissions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent emerging opportunities for new nurses in the future. Traditional care and hospital-based care are existing models of care delivery, while care based solely on cost does not align with the holistic approach to patient care that is becoming more prevalent in healthcare.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.