HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best plan of action for the nurse is to notify the physician and request orders regarding Serge's oral medications. By involving the physician, the nurse ensures that appropriate instructions are obtained, considering Serge's medical condition and the need for NPO status for the diagnostic test. Administering the medications without medical guidance (choice A) can be risky, as it may affect the test results. Notifying the diagnostic department (choice B) is not the most direct and appropriate action; the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for medication orders. Administering the medications with water before the test (choice D) is not advisable when the patient is supposed to be NPO, as it can interfere with the test requirements.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Evidence-based practice. Evidence-based practice relies on research to guide clinical decisions, mirroring the approach of research-based practice. Choice A, Best practices, refers to established methods or techniques that are widely accepted as superior. Choice C, Benchmark practices, typically involves setting standards or goals for performance comparison. Choice D, Standard-based practice, usually pertains to adhering to established norms or guidelines.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best evaluation of the nurse reveals that she should have used regular insulin (Humulin R) for IV administration. Regular insulin is the only insulin approved for intravenous administration due to its pharmacokinetic properties. Insulin lispro (Humalog) is not suitable for IV use. Choice A is incorrect because giving insulin intravenously is necessary in this case of high blood sugar. Choice B is incorrect because administering a different insulin without consulting the physician is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse used the incorrect insulin, which could pose risks to the client's health.