HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.
Question 2 of 5
During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a client with an IV infusion in the left antecubital fossa. The site is warm, red, and without swelling. What conclusion should the nurse draw from these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness at the IV site without swelling indicate a localized reaction, which is common and does not necessarily indicate infiltration of IV fluids into the subcutaneous tissues. The absence of swelling suggests that the IV is correctly placed. Therefore, the nurse should conclude that the infusion pump is functioning properly. Choice A is incorrect as warmth and redness alone do not indicate subcutaneous infiltration. Choice C is incorrect as discontinuing the IV solely based on warmth and redness without swelling is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the absence of swelling signifies a localized reaction rather than inflammation requiring immediate reporting.
Question 4 of 5
A client is diagnosed with Angina Pectoris. Which factor in the client's history is likely related to the anginal pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a major risk factor for angina and other cardiovascular diseases due to its impact on blood vessels. Choice B, 'Drinks two beers daily,' is not directly associated with angina pectoris. While excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to heart problems, it is not a primary risk factor for angina. Choice C, 'Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun,' is not typically related to angina pectoris. Sun exposure is more closely linked to skin-related conditions. Choice D, 'Eats while lying in bed,' is also not a common risk factor for angina. While certain eating habits can impact heart health, this specific behavior is not directly associated with angina pectoris.
Question 5 of 5
A client is being treated for heart failure. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate treatment effectiveness?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight, electrolyte levels, and urine output is crucial in evaluating treatment effectiveness for heart failure. Daily weight monitoring helps assess fluid retention or loss, changes in electrolyte levels can indicate imbalances affecting heart function, and urine output monitoring provides insights into kidney function and fluid balance. Therefore, all options are essential components in assessing the patient's fluid status and response to treatment, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they only represent partial aspects of monitoring heart failure treatment effectiveness.
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