HESI Mental Health Practice Exam

Questions 52

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI Mental Health Practice Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

Question 2 of 5

A 30-year-old sales manager tells the nurse, 'I am thinking about a job change. I don't feel like I am living up to my potential.' Which of Maslow's developmental stages is the sales manager attempting to achieve?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Self-Actualization.' Self-actualization is the highest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, focusing on fulfilling one's full potential and achieving personal growth. In this scenario, the sales manager expressing a desire for a job change because they don't feel they are living up to their potential aligns with the characteristics of self-actualization. Choices B, C, and D represent lower levels of Maslow's hierarchy: 'Loving and Belonging' pertains to social needs, 'Basic Needs' encompass physiological and safety needs, and 'Safety and Security' are fundamental needs related to protection and stability.

Question 3 of 5

The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this family member?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide to the wife of the client diagnosed with schizophrenia is to offer factual information. Choice B is the correct answer as it explains that schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking. This response provides a simple and accurate explanation of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the wife's question about what schizophrenia is. Choice A focuses on emotional support rather than providing information about the disorder. Choice C gives false reassurance without addressing the nature of schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the question by suggesting the wife speak to the psychologist, missing an opportunity to educate and support the family member.

Question 4 of 5

A LPN/LVN is performing a follow-up teaching session with a client discharged 1 month ago. The client is taking fluoxetine (Prozac). What information would be important for the nurse to obtain during this client visit regarding the side effects of the medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Gastrointestinal dysfunctions.' Fluoxetine commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, diarrhea, or constipation. These symptoms can significantly impact the client's quality of life and adherence to the medication regimen. Monitoring gastrointestinal issues is crucial for the nurse to ensure the client's well-being and optimize treatment outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cardiovascular symptoms, problems with mouth dryness, and problems with excessive sweating are not typically associated with fluoxetine use and are less likely to be a focus of concern during this client visit.

Question 5 of 5

During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

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