HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics, and to not discontinue the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed lorazepam. The client should be informed that this medication may have which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Lorazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a common side effect. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential effect, and they should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are possible side effects of other medications but are less commonly associated with lorazepam.
Question 3 of 5
A client with asthma is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse includes a risk for impaired skin integrity on the client's problem list. What is the rationale for including this problem?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glucocorticoids can cause skin thinning, which increases the likelihood of bruising. Thinning of the skin due to glucocorticoid therapy makes it more fragile and prone to injury, such as bruising, even with minimal trauma.
Question 4 of 5
A client with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed raloxifene, a medication used for osteoporosis, is to take it at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication, enhancing its effectiveness in managing the condition.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect.
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