HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with a history of stroke is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by thinning the blood. One of the potential side effects of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, blood in the urine or stool, or prolonged bleeding from cuts or gums. Prompt recognition and management of bleeding are essential to prevent complications.
Question 2 of 5
A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been taking riluzole for two weeks. The nurse notes that the client remains weak with observable muscle atrophy. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority is to document the assessment findings in the electronic health record. This action is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's health status and can provide valuable information for the healthcare team. Withholding medication or advising additional tests should only be done after consulting with the healthcare provider based on the documented assessment findings.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by decreasing the blood's ability to clot. One of the significant side effects of apixaban is an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in the urine or stool, or unusual bleeding or bruising. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent or manage any potential complications associated with the medication.
Question 4 of 5
During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics, and to not discontinue the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for HESI-LPN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your HESI-LPN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access