HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Before starting an intensive exercise program, it is crucial for the client to have a complete physical examination. This examination ensures that the client is physically fit to engage in such activities and helps in identifying any underlying health issues that could be exacerbated by the exercise regimen. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on stress levels related to eating habits rather than the importance of a physical examination for safety. Choice C is incorrect as exercise and stress management classes can complement each other rather than being mutually exclusive. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring weight loss, while important, is not as critical as ensuring the client's physical readiness for the exercise program.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The absence of breath sounds on the affected side is a critical finding that may indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. This situation can lead to a shift of the mediastinum and impaired ventilation. Bubbling in the water seal chamber is an expected finding in a chest tube drainage system and indicates proper functioning. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour is a concern but does not require immediate reporting unless it continues at a high rate or is associated with other symptoms. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates the chest tube system is patent and functioning correctly.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Contact precautions are necessary when performing postmortem care on a client with MRSA to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve using barriers like gloves and gowns to limit direct contact with the deceased individual's body fluids and tissues. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that are transmitted through the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for pathogens that are transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Compromised host precautions are not a recognized standard precaution type and are not applicable in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a new prescription for wrist restraints is to pad the client's wrists before applying the restraints. This is important to prevent skin breakdown and injury. Tying the restraints to the side rails of the bed (Choice B) is unsafe and can lead to potential harm for the client. Similarly, securing the restraints to the bed frame (Choice C) is not appropriate as it can restrict the client's movement and cause discomfort. Using a quick-release knot to tie the restraints (Choice D) is also incorrect as it may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints in ensuring client safety.