HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing an infusion for a client who was hospitalized with deep-vein thrombosis. The orders read: 25,000 units of heparin in 250 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride to infuse at 800 units/hr. At what rate should the nurse set the infusion pump?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, use the formula: (Desired units/hr / Total units) Volume. In this case, it would be (800 units/hr / 25,000 units) 250 mL = 8 mL/hr. Therefore, the nurse should set the infusion pump at 8 mL/hr. Choice B, 10 mL/hr, is incorrect because it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 15 mL/hr respectively, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided data.
Question 2 of 5
During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calf swelling, redness, and tenderness are classic signs of thrombophlebitis. The swelling occurs due to the formation of a blood clot in the deep veins of the calf, leading to inflammation and potential obstruction of blood flow. Bladder distention (Choice A) is more indicative of urinary retention, decreased blood pressure (Choice B) can be seen in conditions like shock, and diminished bowel sounds (Choice D) may suggest gastrointestinal issues, none of which are directly related to thrombophlebitis.
Question 3 of 5
A client has left lower atelectasis. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client for postural drainage?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postural drainage is a technique used to help remove secretions from specific lung segments. For left lower atelectasis, placing the client in the right lateral Trendelenburg position is most effective. This position helps target the affected area, using gravity to assist in drainage. Placing the client in a supine or low Fowler's position (Choice A) may not effectively target the affected area. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated (Choice C) would not utilize gravity for optimal drainage. Placing the client prone with pillows under the extremities (Choice D) is not ideal for postural drainage of the left lower lobe.
Question 4 of 5
During a home safety assessment for a client receiving supplemental oxygen, which observation should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using non-acetone nail polish remover is crucial for clients on supplemental oxygen as acetone is flammable and poses a safety risk. Acetone can react with oxygen, increasing the fire hazard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Electric razors can generate sparks, which are dangerous near oxygen due to the risk of ignition. While cleaning oxygen equipment is important, the type of nail polish remover used is more critical for immediate safety. Wool blankets can create static electricity, increasing the risk of fire around oxygen due to its flammability.
Question 5 of 5
Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The healthcare professional understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Friction. The amount of friction is crucial in effective hand hygiene to remove microorganisms. Rubbing hands together with friction helps to dislodge and remove dirt, oils, and microorganisms. While temperature and soap are important factors in hand hygiene, the mechanical action of friction plays a more significant role in physically removing contaminants. Time is also important in hand hygiene practice, but without adequate friction, the effectiveness of the process is compromised.
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