HESI Fundamentals Exam

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Acupuncture. Acupuncture is contraindicated for clients with herpes zoster due to the risk of infection at the needle sites. In individuals with herpes zoster, the skin's integrity is compromised, increasing susceptibility to infections. Therefore, acupuncture, which involves inserting needles into the skin, can introduce pathogens and lead to local infections. Massage therapy (B), aromatherapy (C), and herbal supplements (D) do not involve skin penetration like acupuncture and are generally considered safe complementary therapies for pain control in clients with herpes zoster.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking warfarin at the same time every day is essential to maintain a consistent blood level of the medication. This statement indicates that the client understands the teaching about the importance of consistency in medication timing. Choice B, regarding using a soft-bristled toothbrush, is not directly related to warfarin therapy and does not assess the client's understanding of warfarin administration. Choice C suggesting taking warfarin at bedtime is incorrect; it is generally recommended to take warfarin at the same time each day to avoid variations in drug levels. Choice D about avoiding foods high in vitamin K is relevant as vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. However, it is not the best indicator of understanding the teaching on medication timing, which is crucial for warfarin efficacy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, use the formula: Dose required (mg) � Stock concentration (mg/mL) = Volume to administer (mL). In this case, 10 mg � 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL. However, when rounding to the nearest tenth, the answer should be 0.3 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.3 mL. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B (0.25 mL) is the result obtained before rounding. Choice C (0.4 mL) and Choice D (0.5 mL) are incorrect calculations.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.