HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client's pulse deficit (per minute)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
Question 2 of 5
After abdominal surgery, a client has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago. What action should the LPN take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the initial step to assess for urinary retention in a postoperative client. This non-invasive technique helps determine the volume of urine in the bladder, guiding further interventions. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice B) may be beneficial but is not the priority when assessing for urinary retention. Inserting a straight catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action without first assessing for retention. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) should not be done without confirming the need through assessment.
Question 3 of 5
During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a young adult client. Which of the following injection sites is the safest for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is considered the safest for intramuscular injections in young adult clients due to its location away from major nerves and blood vessels. The ventrogluteal site is preferred over the dorsogluteal site, as the latter is associated with a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid site is commonly used for vaccines but may not be suitable for all intramuscular injections due to smaller muscle mass. The vastus lateralis site is often used in infants and young children, but in young adults, the ventrogluteal site is preferred for safety and efficacy.
Question 5 of 5
A client is being taught about medications at discharge. Which statement should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Adding liquid medication to pudding can help with swallowing difficulties, demonstrating understanding of the instructions. Options A and C are incorrect as altering time-release capsules and enteric-coated pills is not recommended in medication administration. Option A is incorrect as time-release capsules should not be opened and sprinkled on food, affecting their efficacy. Option C is incorrect as crushing enteric-coated pills can affect their absorption. Option D is unrelated to medication administration and does not demonstrate understanding of the instructions.
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