HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

Questions 91

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals Questions

Question 1 of 5

A healthcare professional is screening several clients at a neighborhood health fair. Which of the following assessment findings is the priority for referral for further care?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Glucose 45 mg/dL.' Glucose level of 45 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention to prevent complications like seizures, loss of consciousness, and even coma. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious adverse outcomes if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and C do not represent immediate life-threatening conditions and can be managed as part of routine care, unlike hypoglycemia which demands urgent intervention.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days and becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client. What should the nurse do next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: It is important for the nurse to address their feelings of reluctance when dealing with a manipulative client by discussing them with an objective peer or supervisor. This action can provide valuable insight and support for managing the nurse-client relationship. Choice B should be avoided as limiting contacts with the client may not address the underlying issues and could potentially harm the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is confrontational and may escalate the situation rather than resolve it. Choice D, while important, should come after addressing the nurse's feelings and seeking support.

Question 3 of 5

A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.

Question 4 of 5

A client is being taught how to administer ear drops. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Gently applying pressure to the front part of the ear after administering drops helps with absorption. Pulling the ear down and back is a correct technique for adults. Snugly inserting the nozzle of the ear drop bottle or placing a cotton ball all the way into the ear canal is unnecessary and can potentially cause harm or discomfort. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

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