HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.
Question 2 of 5
Following a bout of diarrhea, which foods should be offered to the school-age child?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After rehydration, it is important to offer foods that are nonirritating to the bowel to the child. Bananas and rice are considered the best options as they are least likely to irritate the gastrointestinal tract. Apricots, peaches, and applesauce are fruits that may cause GI irritation, while milk, including chocolate milk, can also be irritating to the bowel. Therefore, the optimal choice for a child recovering from diarrhea would be bananas and rice.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.
Question 4 of 5
A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.
Question 5 of 5
A client who is newly diagnosed with emphysema is being prepared for discharge. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide the client to assist them with dyspnea self-management?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips can help improve oxygenation and reduce dyspnea. This technique, known as pursed lip breathing, can help regulate breathing patterns and decrease the work of breathing in clients with emphysema. Choice A is incorrect because allowing additional time for physical activities does not directly address dyspnea management. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier, although beneficial for respiratory conditions, does not specifically assist with dyspnea self-management. Choice D is also incorrect as strengthening abdominal muscles through leg raises does not directly target dyspnea relief.
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