Adult Health 2 Exam 1

Questions 49

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Adult Health 2 Exam 1 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.

Question 2 of 5

The mother of an 8-year-old boy tells the nurse that he fell out of a tree and hurt his arm and shoulder. Which assessment finding is the most significant indicator of possible child abuse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In cases of possible child abuse, discrepancies between the accounts given by the child and the parent are critical indicators. This inconsistency could suggest that the injury was not accidental and may be a result of abuse. Looking at the floor while answering questions or having abrasions on the body can be concerning but are not as direct indicators of abuse as conflicting stories between the child and the parent.

Question 3 of 5

The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.

Question 4 of 5

A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.

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