Adult Health 2 Exam 1

Questions 49

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Adult Health 2 Exam 1 Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.

Question 2 of 5

The client with a new colostomy is being taught about colostomy care. Which statement by the client indicates effective learning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because inspecting the stoma daily is crucial in identifying any early signs of complications or infections. Choice A is incorrect because changing the colostomy bag daily is not necessary unless there is a specific reason to do so. Choice B is incorrect as a low-fiber diet is not usually recommended for colostomy care. Choice D is incorrect because colostomy care should be performed regularly regardless of how the client feels.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

Question 4 of 5

A client with chronic kidney disease is being evaluated for dialysis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium 6.2 mEq/L. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys struggle to regulate potassium levels, leading to hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is dangerously high and can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL may indicate anemia, which is common in chronic kidney disease but is not immediately life-threatening. Creatinine and BUN levels are markers of kidney function; although elevated levels indicate kidney impairment, they are not acutely life-threatening like severe hyperkalemia.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis who has developed ascites. What is the most important intervention to include in the care plan?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer diuretics as prescribed. Diuretics are often prescribed to help manage fluid accumulation in ascites, which is a common complication of cirrhosis. Restricting sodium intake (Choice A) is essential in managing ascites, but administering diuretics takes precedence in the care plan. Encouraging high-protein meals (Choice B) and increasing fluid intake (Choice C) are not the primary interventions for managing ascites in cirrhosis.

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