Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

Questions 49

HESI LPN

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Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.

Question 3 of 5

Based on the Nursing diagnosis of 'Potential for infection related to second and third degree burns,' which intervention has the highest priority?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is B, the use of careful hand washing technique. Proper hand hygiene is essential in preventing infection, especially in individuals with compromised skin integrity like those with burns. By practicing careful hand washing, healthcare providers reduce the risk of introducing harmful pathogens to the burn wound, thus lowering the chances of infections. Choice A, application of topical antibacterial cream, is important but should follow ensuring proper hand hygiene. Choice C, administration of plasma expanders, is not directly associated with preventing burn-related infections. Choice D, limiting visitors, is significant for infection control, but ensuring proper hand hygiene outweighs this intervention in terms of priority.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering morphine is a priority intervention during the acute phase of myocardial infarction (MI). Morphine not only provides pain relief but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because isometric exercises can increase myocardial oxygen demand and are not recommended during the acute phase of MI. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed, not keeping the client flat, is preferred to reduce workload on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be encouraged unless contraindicated, as adequate hydration is essential for cardiac function.

Question 5 of 5

An elderly client is concerned about constipation during a flight. What should the nurse recommend?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing fluid intake in the diet. Adequate hydration is essential for preventing constipation, especially during travel when mobility may be reduced. Stool softeners are not the first-line recommendation and should only be used when necessary. Eating a high protein diet or decreasing fat content in the diet may not directly address the issue of constipation related to dehydration during a flight.

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