Nutrition Final Exam Quizlet

Questions 51

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Nutrition Final Exam Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which statement best describes the relationship between diet and chronic diseases?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. A poor diet can increase the risk of developing chronic diseases due to the lack of essential nutrients or the presence of harmful components like excessive sugar, salt, or saturated fats. While diet plays a significant role in the development of chronic diseases, it is not the sole cause (choice C). Choice A is incorrect because diet does indeed have a significant impact on chronic diseases. Choice D is not the best answer as it does not acknowledge the negative impact of a poor diet on chronic diseases.

Question 2 of 5

What is a primary concern for a child with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risk of hyperglycemia. When a child is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, one of the primary concerns is the risk of hyperglycemia, which refers to high blood glucose levels. Hyperglycemia can lead to various complications if not managed properly, making it crucial to stabilize blood glucose levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased growth rate, risk of dehydration, and improved appetite are not primary concerns specifically associated with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.

Question 3 of 5

Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field in a process known as what?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: peer review. Before publication, research findings must undergo peer review, where experts in the field evaluate the validity and significance of the study. Choice B, cohort review, is incorrect as it does not involve the same level of evaluation by experts. Choice C, research intervention, is not a term used to describe the evaluation process before publication. Choice D, double-blind examination, refers to a study design where neither the participants nor the researchers know who is receiving a particular treatment, which is not the same as the peer review process.

Question 4 of 5

Why must a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis be kept NPO?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In acute laryngotracheobronchitis, rapid respirations increase the risk of aspiration due to compromised airway protection and potential for secretions to enter the lungs. Keeping the child NPO helps prevent the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine is not typically used for laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids does not eliminate the risk of aspiration. Choice C is also incorrect because the child being hungry is not the primary reason for keeping them NPO in this condition.

Question 5 of 5

What will the treatment for a newly admitted child with cystic fibrosis center on?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest physiotherapy. Treatment for cystic fibrosis focuses on chest physiotherapy and aerosol medications to manage and clear thick pulmonary secretions. Chest physiotherapy helps loosen and clear mucus from the lungs, aiding in breathing and reducing the risk of infections. Mucus-drying agents (choice B) are not typically used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis as the goal is to help clear mucus, not dry it. Prevention of diarrhea (choice C) is not a primary focus in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Insulin therapy (choice D) is not relevant to cystic fibrosis, which primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems.

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