Medical Surgical HESI 2023

Questions 45

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Medical Surgical HESI 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.

Question 2 of 5

What is the priority patient problem for the parents of a newborn born with cleft lip and palate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for impaired attachment. Parents of a newborn with cleft lip and palate may face challenges in bonding with their child due to the physical appearance, impacting attachment. Promoting bonding between parents and the infant is crucial in this situation. Choice A (Parental role conflict) is incorrect as it focuses on conflicting roles rather than the attachment issue. Choice B (Risk for delayed growth and development) is not the priority issue in this scenario as the immediate concern is establishing a healthy attachment. Choice D (Anticipatory grieving) is not the priority patient problem as it pertains more to the emotional response to an anticipated loss, which is not the primary concern at this stage.

Question 3 of 5

A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

Question 4 of 5

A client with hyperkalemia is being treated in the emergency department. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, where potassium levels are elevated, calcium gluconate is administered to stabilize the myocardial cell membrane and protect the heart from potential arrhythmias. Potassium chloride (choice A) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Magnesium sulfate (choice C) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Sodium bicarbonate (choice D) is used in metabolic acidosis, not specifically for hyperkalemia.

Question 5 of 5

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via a nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication of oxygen therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In clients with COPD, oxygen therapy can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive caused by the removal of the hypoxic drive. This can result in carbon dioxide retention, leading to a decreased level of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased respiratory rate is typically a sign of hypoxia, improved oxygen saturation is a positive response to oxygen therapy, and complaints of dry mouth are not directly related to oxygen therapy complications in this scenario.

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