Pediatric Practice Exam HESI

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A cross-cut nipple is the most appropriate choice for feeding an infant with a unilateral cleft lip and palate. Using a cross-cut nipple helps regulate the flow of milk, making feeding easier for the infant and reducing the risk of aspiration. Plastic spoons, parenteral infusion, and rubber-tipped syringes are not recommended for feeding infants with cleft lip and palate as they can pose risks such as choking, aspiration, or inadequate milk intake. It is essential to choose a feeding method that minimizes these risks and ensures proper nutrition for the infant.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 3-month-old infant hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is to cluster care to conserve energy. Infants with RSV often have difficulty breathing and need to rest frequently. Clustering care involves grouping nursing interventions to allow for longer periods of rest between activities, which helps prevent exhaustion and conserve the infant's energy. Administering an antiviral agent is not the primary intervention for RSV, as it is a viral infection and antiviral agents are not typically used for RSV. Offering oral fluids is important for hydration but may not be the priority when the infant is struggling to breathe. Providing an antitussive agent should be done judiciously and under medical guidance, as suppressing the cough reflex can be detrimental in RSV cases where coughing helps clear airway secretions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tap water enemas can cause significant fluid and electrolyte imbalances, particularly in infants, making them unsafe for this age group. Choice A is incorrect because tap water enemas do not directly lead to loss of necessary nutrients. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on emotional impact rather than physiological risks. Choice D is incorrect as shock from a sudden drop in temperature is not a common consequence of a tap water enema in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, severe joint pain. Rheumatic fever commonly presents with severe joint pain due to joint inflammation. Jaundice (choice A) is not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Peeling skin on the hands and feet (choice B) is more indicative of conditions like Kawasaki disease. While a high fever (choice C) can be present, it is not as specific to rheumatic fever as severe joint pain. Severe joint pain, along with other criteria like carditis, subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum, and Sydenham chorea, are major criteria used in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever.