HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the most common cause of HHNS?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.
Question 2 of 5
Alcohol, caffeine, or drugs are high-risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Psychosocial. Alcohol, caffeine, or drug use are considered psychosocial risk factors as they are related to individual behavior, lifestyle choices, and social interactions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Social demographic factors (choice A) refer to characteristics of a population such as age, gender, education, income, etc. Environmental factors (choice B) include physical surroundings like air quality, housing conditions, etc. Biophysical factors (choice C) involve biological aspects like genetics, physiology, and health conditions.
Question 3 of 5
A charge nurse making rounds observes that an assistive personnel (AP) has applied wrist restraints to a client who is agitated and does not have a prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to remove the restraints from the client's wrists. Restraints should not be applied without a prescription due to the risk of harm to the client. Removing the restraints promptly is a priority to ensure the client's safety. Reviewing nonrestraint alternatives, speaking with the AP, and informing the unit manager can follow after ensuring the client's immediate safety by removing the restraints.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.
Question 5 of 5
Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.
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