HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

Questions 47

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HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI Focus on Maternity Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

As women reach the end of their childbearing years, does ovulation become more regular?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. As women age and reach the end of their childbearing years, ovulation becomes less regular due to hormonal changes associated with menopause. This can result in irregular ovulation patterns or even the cessation of ovulation entirely. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation does not become more regular with age. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the changes in ovulation patterns that occur as women approach the end of their childbearing years.

Question 2 of 5

A client has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is the antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, including genital herpes caused by herpes simplex virus type 2. Metronidazole (Choice A) is an antibiotic used for different types of infections, but not for viral infections like herpes. Penicillin (Choice B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viruses like herpes. Gentamicin (Choice D) is an antibiotic mainly used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like herpes.

Question 3 of 5

Which information regarding the care of antepartum women with cardiac conditions is most important for the nurse to understand?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Class II cardiac disease is symptomatic with ordinary activity. Women in this category need to avoid heavy exertion and limit regular activities as symptoms dictate. Stress is greatest between weeks 28 and 32 of gestation, when hemodynamic changes reach their maximum. Class III cardiac disease is symptomatic with less-than-ordinary activity. These women need bed rest most of the day and face the possibility of hospitalization near term. Class I cardiac disease is asymptomatic at normal levels of activity. These women can perform limited normal activities with discretion, although they still need a good amount of sleep.

Question 4 of 5

A woman who is 38 weeks gestation is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absent patellar reflexes. Absent patellar reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. Dizziness while standing (choice A) is common in pregnancy but does not specifically indicate magnesium toxicity. Sinus tachycardia (choice B) can be a normal response to magnesium sulfate but does not indicate toxicity. Lower back pain (choice C) is common in pregnancy and not specifically associated with magnesium toxicity.

Question 5 of 5

A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which of the following locations should the healthcare professional place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: At 14 weeks of gestation, the uterus is still relatively low in the abdomen. Placing the Doppler midline 2 to 3 cm above the symphysis pubis is appropriate for assessing the fetal heart rate. This location allows for better detection of the fetal heart tones as the uterus is at a lower position during this stage of pregnancy. Placing the Doppler on the left upper abdomen would not be ideal at 14 weeks gestation as the uterus is not yet at that level. Placing it two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus or lateral at the xiphoid process would also not be accurate for locating the fetal heart rate at this stage of gestation.

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