HESI CAT Exam 2022

Questions 51

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI CAT Exam 2022 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A postpartum client who is bottle feeding develops breast engorgement. What is the best recommendation for the nurse to provide this client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: For a postpartum client who is bottle feeding and develops breast engorgement, the best recommendation is to avoid stimulation of the breasts and wear a tight bra. This helps reduce engorgement by decreasing blood flow to the breasts. Option A is incorrect because exposing the breasts to air can further stimulate them, worsening engorgement. Option B is incorrect as warm packs can increase blood flow and exacerbate engorgement. Option D is incorrect as expressing breast milk can lead to further stimulation and increased engorgement.

Question 2 of 5

In what sequence should the nurse prepare the dose of insulin for a client whose finger stick glucose is 210 mg/dl and is receiving a sliding scale dose of short-acting insulin before breakfast?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for preparing a dose of insulin involves ensuring proper aseptic technique. First, clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab to prevent contamination. Second, withdraw the correct dose of insulin to be administered. Lastly, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial to maintain proper pressure for withdrawing the medication. This sequence ensures the medication is prepared safely and accurately. Choice A is correct as it follows this sequence. Choices B, C, and D present incorrect sequences that may compromise patient safety by not following the correct aseptic technique. Choice B injects air into the vial before withdrawing insulin, which is incorrect. Choice C reverses the order of withdrawing insulin and injecting air. Choice D withdraws the insulin before injecting air, which can affect the pressure inside the vial and lead to inaccurate dosing.

Question 3 of 5

Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take before leaving the room is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released. Using a half bow knot to attach the client's wrist restraints allows for quick release in case of an emergency. This is crucial for ensuring the safety of the client and complying with restraint policies. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice B) would make it difficult to release quickly when needed. Moving the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails (Choice C) does not address the immediate need for a quick release. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrist (Choice D) may not be appropriate if the restraints need to be quickly removed for the client's safety.

Question 4 of 5

Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

Question 5 of 5

What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

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