Fundamentals HESI

Questions 92

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Fundamentals HESI Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypernatremia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse hypotonic IV fluids. In hypernatremia, there is an elevated sodium concentration in the blood, and diluting it with hypotonic fluids helps to lower the sodium levels. Implementing a fluid restriction or increasing sodium intake would worsen hypernatremia by further concentrating sodium in the body. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used for treating hyperkalemia, not hypernatremia.

Question 2 of 5

A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A new or changed heart murmur is a common sign of valve involvement in infective endocarditis, indicating a complication such as valve damage or regurgitation. Dyspnea is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiac conditions not directly related to infective endocarditis. A macular rash is not a typical symptom of infective endocarditis, suggesting other conditions like infectious diseases. Hemorrhage is not a direct complication of infective endocarditis but may occur due to factors such as anticoagulant therapy or underlying bleeding disorders.

Question 3 of 5

During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.

Question 4 of 5

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

Question 5 of 5

The healthcare provider is observing the way a patient walks. Which aspect is the healthcare provider assessing?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When assessing the way a patient walks, the healthcare provider is evaluating the gait, which refers to a particular manner or style of walking. Body alignment pertains to the positioning of body parts in relation to one another, range of motion refers to the extent of movement of a joint, and activity tolerance relates to the ability to endure physical activities. In this scenario, observing the patient's walking pattern specifically focuses on gait assessment.

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