HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A key component of primary prevention strategies is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: education.' Education plays a vital role in primary prevention strategies by empowering individuals with knowledge and skills to prevent the onset of diseases. Through education, people can make informed decisions about their health, adopt healthy behaviors, and engage in preventive measures. Choice A, 'aggressive interventions,' is incorrect as primary prevention focuses on proactive measures to avoid the development of diseases rather than aggressive reactive interventions. Choice B, 'detection,' is more aligned with secondary prevention, which involves early identification of diseases. Choice C, 'culture,' while important in shaping health behaviors, is not a key component specifically in primary prevention strategies.
Question 2 of 5
A confused client has been placed in physical restraints by order of the healthcare provider. Which task could be assigned to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Assist the client with activities of daily living.' Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can help clients with activities of daily living, such as feeding, bathing, and dressing. This task is appropriate for UAP as it does not require professional judgment. Choices B, C, and D involve monitoring safety, evaluating needs, and documenting assessments, which require a licensed nurse's professional judgment and expertise.
Question 3 of 5
What is the main focus of secondary prevention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The main focus of secondary prevention is early detection and treatment of disease. This approach aims to identify health conditions in their early stages when they are easier to treat or manage effectively. Choice B, rehabilitation, is more aligned with restoring function after an illness or injury has occurred. Choice C, health promotion, concentrates on educating and empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to prevent the onset of diseases. Choice D, palliative care, is focused on providing comfort and improving the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses or at the end of life, rather than on early detection and treatment.
Question 4 of 5
A client was re-admitted to the hospital following a recent skull fracture. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lethargy is a critical finding that requires the nurse's immediate attention when a client with a recent skull fracture is readmitted to the hospital. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or other serious complications such as hemorrhage or infection. Addressing lethargy promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Agitation, ataxia, and hearing loss are important to assess but do not signify the same level of urgency as lethargy in this context.
Question 5 of 5
A client presents at a community-based clinic with complaints of shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and nausea. During the assessment, the nurse learns that the client is a migrant worker who often uses a gasoline-powered pressure washer to clean equipment and farm buildings. Which type of poisoning is the most likely etiology of this client's symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms of shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and nausea are indicative of carbon monoxide poisoning, which can result from exposure to gasoline-powered equipment like pressure washers. Asbestos (Choice A) exposure would typically present with respiratory issues and cancer but not the rapid onset of symptoms described. Silica dust (Choice B) exposure is associated with respiratory conditions like silicosis, not the multisystem symptoms in the scenario. Histoplasmosis (Choice C) is a fungal infection that primarily affects the lungs and is not related to the client's exposure to a gasoline-powered pressure washer.
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