HESI CAT Exam 2024

Questions 49

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI CAT Exam 2024 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with renal disease seems anxious and presents with the onset of shortness of breath, lethargy, edema, and weight gain. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the client's serum potassium level. In a client with renal disease experiencing symptoms like shortness of breath, lethargy, edema, and weight gain, assessing serum potassium levels is crucial. Electrolyte imbalances, including potassium, can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Calculating daily fluid intake may be important but addressing acute symptoms related to electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Assessing for signs of vertigo and reviewing pulse oximetry reading are not the priority in this scenario compared to assessing and managing potential electrolyte imbalances.

Question 2 of 5

When entering a client's room to administer an 0900 IV antibiotic, the nurse finds that the client is engaged in sexual activity with a visitor. Which actions should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to leave the room and close the door quietly. This response respects the client's privacy, maintains professionalism, and avoids interrupting the client's personal moment. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the behavior is not appropriate and may invade the client's privacy further. Choice B is incorrect as it can embarrass the client and the visitor, breaching their privacy and dignity. Choice D is also incorrect as the immediate priority is to respect the client's privacy and address the situation discreetly.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse working on a mental health unit is prioritizing nursing care activities due to a staffing shortage. One practical nurse (PN) is on the unit with the nurse, and another RN is expected to arrive within two hours. Clients need to be awakened, and morning medications need to be prepared. Which plan is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best plan for the nurse to implement is to ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened. This approach ensures that medication administration and client care are efficiently managed despite the staffing shortage. Option A is incorrect as it may disrupt the workflow and create unnecessary chaos. Option B is not the best choice as it does not address the immediate need for medication administration. Option D is not ideal as it delays client care until additional staff arrive, potentially compromising patient safety and timely medication administration.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client's plan of care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.

Question 5 of 5

When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client's statement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

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