HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit intake of foods high in vitamin K'. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication commonly used to treat conditions like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods and be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin C, increasing intake of green leafy vegetables, and avoiding dairy products are not essential dietary instructions for a client on warfarin therapy for DVT.
Question 2 of 5
A client who has a history of hyperthyroidism was initially admitted with lethargy and confusion. Which additional finding warrants the most immediate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A further decline in LOC can indicate severe complications and requires immediate attention. This change may signify worsening neurological status, which could lead to life-threatening consequences if not addressed promptly. Choices A, B, and C may also be concerning in a client with a history of hyperthyroidism, but a further decline in LOC takes priority due to its potential for rapid deterioration and the need for urgent intervention.
Question 3 of 5
The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which position is most appropriate to improve oxygenation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: High Fowler's position. High Fowler's position is the most appropriate for a client with chronic heart failure experiencing dyspnea and low oxygen saturation. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by maximizing chest expansion and allowing better ventilation. Choice A, supine with legs elevated, may worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Choice C, prone with pillows under the chest, is not suitable for a client experiencing dyspnea as it may further compromise breathing. Choice D, side-lying with head flat, does not facilitate optimal lung expansion and is not the best choice for improving oxygenation in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
During the initial assessment of an older male client with obesity and diabetes who develops intermittent claudication, which additional information obtained by the nurse is most significant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral arterial disease, a condition that can lead to intermittent claudication. The nicotine and other chemicals in cigarettes can damage blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow and increased risk of developing circulation problems. Choices B, C, and D are less significant in the context of intermittent claudication. Regular exercise, a high-fat diet, and daily alcohol consumption may have health implications, but they are not as directly linked to the development of intermittent claudication in the presence of obesity, diabetes, and smoking.
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