HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

Questions 91

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

Question 2 of 5

A client scheduled for a hysterectomy has not yet signed the operative consent form. When the nurse approaches the client and asks that she review and sign the form, the client says she no longer wants to have the surgery. At this time, which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ask the client why she has changed her mind. By understanding the client's reasons for refusal, the nurse can address any concerns, provide further information, and ensure that the client's decision is respected. Proceeding with the surgery without clarifying the client's decision or notifying the surgeon immediately would not be appropriate. Documenting the client's decision is important, but it should be done after understanding the rationale behind the decision.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

Question 4 of 5

When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.

Question 5 of 5

When caring for a client with diarrhea due to Shigella, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct precaution for Shigella infection is to wash hands thoroughly before and after contact with the client. Shigella is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, so hand hygiene is crucial in preventing its spread. Wearing a surgical mask or face shield is not necessary for Shigella as it is not primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets. While wearing a gown and gloves is important for standard precautions, the key precaution specific to Shigella is proper hand hygiene.

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