HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. Black, tarry stools can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication that requires urgent medical evaluation and intervention. This finding should not be dismissed or considered normal without further assessment. Option A is incorrect because black, tarry stools are not a normal finding and may signify a significant health issue. Option C is incorrect as immediate action is needed rather than just documenting the finding. Option D is not the best choice as it simply suggests seeking medical attention without emphasizing the urgency of the situation. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management of potential gastrointestinal bleeding.
Question 2 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.
Question 3 of 5
A home health nurse who has attended a training session for the therapeutic use of aromatherapy with essential oils is planning to use this modality with some of her clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse consult the provider before using this complementary therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a client who has asthma. Essential oils have the potential to trigger asthma symptoms due to their strong scents and chemical components. Consulting with the healthcare provider is crucial before using aromatherapy with essential oils to ensure the safety and well-being of the client with asthma. Choices B, C, and D do not pose immediate risks with aromatherapy use, making them less of a priority for consultation compared to asthma. Clients with diabetes, hypertension, or depression do not have the same immediate risks associated with the use of aromatherapy as clients with asthma. However, it is still advisable for the nurse to be aware of any potential interactions or contraindications with these conditions and consult with the provider if needed.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse's priority before beginning this procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The priority assessment question before beginning hygiene care for a new resident is determining if the resident is able to help with their hygiene care. This is essential to ensure the resident's safety during the procedure and prevent any potential injuries. Options A, B, and C, while relevant to providing personalized care, are not as critical as assessing the resident's ability to participate in their own hygiene care. Asking about the resident's ability to assist also promotes their independence and autonomy in self-care activities.
Question 5 of 5
A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for HESI-LPN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your HESI-LPN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access