HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is obtunded arrives in the emergency center with a suspected drug overdose. Intravenous naloxone is given, but within a short period, the client's level of consciousness deteriorates. What action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering an additional dose of naloxone should be the first action taken by the nurse in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. If the client's level of consciousness deteriorates after the initial dose, administering another dose can help further reverse the overdose effects and improve the client's condition. Once the additional naloxone dose is given, the nurse can then proceed to assess the client's response and consider other interventions as needed.
Question 2 of 5
Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving aspirin 600mg po QID?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the stool for occult blood when caring for a client receiving aspirin 600mg po QID. Aspirin can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, and checking for occult blood in the stool is essential to monitor for this serious adverse effect. Monitoring temperature, assessing pain, and checking for dyspepsia and nausea are important interventions but not as critical as monitoring for gastrointestinal bleeding when a client is receiving aspirin.
Question 3 of 5
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin, the nurse should monitor for pancreatitis as a potential adverse effect. Linagliptin has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis; therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management.
Question 4 of 5
Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Buspirone may take several weeks to take effect, so clients should continue taking it as prescribed and not expect immediate relief.
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