HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

Questions 89

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The LPN plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Setting the infusion pump to 150 ml/hr ensures the correct administration rate of the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate, consider that the total volume to be infused is 50 ml over 20 minutes. To convert this to ml/hr, the calculation is (50 ml / 20 minutes) x 60 minutes/hr = 150 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate needed to deliver the secondary infusion over the specified time.

Question 2 of 5

What will ensure the safe movement of a patient who is unable to move and needs to be pulled up in bed?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: To ensure the safe movement of a patient who is unable to move and needs to be pulled up in bed, it is essential to use a friction-reducing device. This device helps reduce the risk of injury to both the patient and the healthcare provider by minimizing the effort required to reposition the patient. Placing a pillow under the patient's head and shoulders (Choice A) may provide comfort but does not address the safety concerns associated with moving the patient. Attempting to move the patient alone (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries for both the patient and the healthcare provider. Placing the side rails in the up position (Choice C) may not directly contribute to the safe movement of the patient in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

When caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when asked to remove dentures before surgery, which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client about their concerns regarding being without their teeth. This approach helps address the client's anxiety and provides insight into the reason for their agitation. Choice B is authoritarian and does not address the client's emotional needs. Choice C focuses on the technical aspect of surgery and does not address the client's emotional state. Choice D implies a one-way communication without addressing the client's feelings or concerns.

Question 4 of 5

A 3-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease attends a daycare center. Which of the following would be an appropriate snack?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is potato chips. As a child with celiac disease needs to avoid gluten, potato chips are a suitable snack choice as they are typically gluten-free. Cheese crackers (Choice A) and vanilla cookies (Choice D) contain gluten, which should be avoided by individuals with celiac disease. While peanut butter sandwiches (Choice B) could be gluten-free depending on the bread used, it is not the best choice as cross-contamination is a concern in shared environments like daycare centers.

Question 5 of 5

Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The healthcare professional understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Friction. The amount of friction is crucial in effective hand hygiene to remove microorganisms. Rubbing hands together with friction helps to dislodge and remove dirt, oils, and microorganisms. While temperature and soap are important factors in hand hygiene, the mechanical action of friction plays a more significant role in physically removing contaminants. Time is also important in hand hygiene practice, but without adequate friction, the effectiveness of the process is compromised.

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