Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

Questions 91

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.

Question 2 of 5

During a staff meeting, a nurse is discussing the purpose of regulatory agencies. Which of the following tasks should the nurse identify as the responsibility of state licensing boards?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: State licensing boards are primarily responsible for ensuring that health care providers comply with regulations. This includes overseeing licensure requirements, investigating complaints, and enforcing disciplinary actions. Monitoring evidence-based practice for clients with specific diagnoses is typically within the domain of professional organizations or healthcare institutions. Setting quality standards for accrediting health care facilities is usually the role of accrediting bodies such as The Joint Commission. Lastly, determining the safety of medications for administration to clients falls under the purview of regulatory agencies like the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

Question 3 of 5

A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.

Question 4 of 5

While being educated by a nurse, an assistive personnel (AP) is learning about proper hand hygiene. Which statement made by the AP indicates a good understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it demonstrates an understanding that soap and water should be used when hands are visibly dirty or when dealing with specific pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests the use of soap and water over alcohol-based hand rub without specifying the circumstances. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that using alcohol-based hand rub after using the restroom is always suitable. Choice D is incorrect because it states that hand rub is always enough, which is not true when hands are visibly soiled or when specific pathogens are present.

Question 5 of 5

A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia, it indicates hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to assess and manage the client's condition effectively. Option A, encouraging the client to increase fluid intake, may exacerbate polyuria. Option C, administering insulin, should be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription after assessing the blood glucose level. Option D, assessing the client's urine output, is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario; monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence.

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