HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank

Questions 92

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons. The client's partner wants the client to have the blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to withhold the blood transfusion. The principle of autonomy ensures that a competent client has the right to refuse treatment, even if their decision conflicts with the wishes of their partner or family. Asking the client to consider a direct donation (Choice A) is not appropriate as it disregards the client's autonomy and religious beliefs. Requesting a consultation with the ethics committee (Choice C) may be considered in complex ethical dilemmas, but in this case, the client's autonomy should be respected first. Asking the client's family to intervene (Choice D) is not appropriate as the client has the right to make their own healthcare decisions based on their religious beliefs.

Question 2 of 5

The healthcare provider is caring for a patient with a spinal cord injury and notices that the patient's hips have a tendency to rotate externally when the patient is supine. Which device will the healthcare provider use to help prevent injury secondary to this rotation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A trochanter roll is the correct choice as it is used to prevent external rotation of the hips when the patient is in a supine position. Hand rolls (Choice A) are incorrect because they are used to prevent contractures of the fingers, wrist, and hand. A trapeze bar (Choice B) is not the correct option as it helps patients change positions in bed and aids with movement, not specifically for hip rotation. Hand-wrist splints (Choice D) are also incorrect as they are used to maintain the functional position of the wrist and hand, not to address hip rotation.

Question 3 of 5

The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.

Question 4 of 5

During an admission history, a client tells a nurse that she is under a lot of stress. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to increase as a result of stress?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stress typically increases blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones like cortisol and adrenaline. Elevated blood glucose helps provide energy for the body to cope with the stressful situation. Choice B is incorrect because intestinal peristalsis, the movement of the intestines, is more likely to decrease under stress due to the 'fight or flight' response. Choice C is incorrect as peripheral blood vessels' diameter may vary in response to stress, with both constriction and dilation possible. Choice D is incorrect as urine output may increase or decrease depending on individual differences and the specific stress response, but it is not a typical or direct physiological response to stress.

Question 5 of 5

An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.

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