HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI Practice Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is prescribed an antacid for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. What is the action of this medication that is effective in treating the client's ulcer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antacids work by neutralizing gastric acids and maintaining a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. This pH level is crucial to prevent the activation of pepsinogen, a precursor to pepsin, which can further damage the ulcer. Choice A is incorrect because antacids do not directly decrease the production of gastric secretions; they neutralize existing acid. Choice B is incorrect as antacids do not form a physical barrier over the ulcer but rather neutralize the acid around it. Choice D is also incorrect as antacids do not affect gastric motor activity but focus on reducing acidity in the stomach.
Question 2 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients should not stop taking risperidone abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tremors. When a client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder, one common side effect to monitor for is tremors. Tremors are a known adverse effect of lithium therapy and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers. Choice A, dry mouth, is not typically associated with lithium use. Hair loss, as in choice B, is not a common side effect of lithium. Weight gain, as mentioned in choice C, can occur with some medications used to treat bipolar disorder, but it is not a prominent side effect of lithium specifically.
Question 4 of 5
A client has metoprolol prescribed. The nurse should reinforce instructions that this medication has which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sexual dysfunction. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because metoprolol can cause depression, not anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as tachycardia is not an adverse effect of metoprolol; instead, it can lead to bradycardia. Choice D is incorrect because acute renal failure is not typically associated with the use of beta-blockers.
Question 5 of 5
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed empagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Empagliflozin, a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. This is due to its mechanism of action, which involves promoting the excretion of glucose through urine, creating a more favorable environment for fungal or bacterial growth in the genital area. Choices B and C, hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, are less likely adverse effects of empagliflozin. Empagliflozin actually carries a low risk of causing hypoglycemia since it works independently of insulin. Nausea (Choice D) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of empagliflozin, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.
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