Maternity HESI Test Bank

Questions 46

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Maternity HESI Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

Question 2 of 5

Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.

Question 3 of 5

A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

Question 4 of 5

What is the central layer of the embryo from which the bones and muscles develop?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is mesoderm. The mesoderm is the middle layer of the embryo that gives rise to the bones, muscles, and other connective tissues. The neural tube (choice A) develops into the nervous system, not bones and muscles. The ectoderm (choice C) forms the skin and nervous system, not bones and muscles. The umbilical cord (choice D) is a structure that connects the developing fetus to the placenta; it is not a layer of the embryo that gives rise to bones and muscles.

Question 5 of 5

What maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of spina bifida occulta in a newborn?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is a well-known risk factor for neural tube defects, including spina bifida occulta, making supplementation critical in prenatal care. Folic acid plays a crucial role in neural tube formation during early pregnancy. Short intervals between pregnancies do not directly impact the development of spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy and is not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. While tobacco use during pregnancy has various adverse effects, it is not the primary factor influencing the development of spina bifida occulta in newborns.

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