HESI CAT Exam

Questions 51

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI CAT Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.

Question 2 of 5

The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.

Question 3 of 5

A client who is bleeding after a vaginal delivery receives a prescription for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. The medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml. What is the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer to this client? (Enter numeric value only)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer, multiply the dose per administration (0.4 mg) by the maximum number of doses allowed (5 doses): 0.4 mg/dose * 5 doses = 2 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer a maximum dosage of 2 mg to the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

Question 4 of 5

After implementing a new fall prevention protocol on the nursing unit, which action by the nurse-manager best evaluates the protocol's effectiveness?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new fall prevention protocol is by comparing the number of falls that occurred before and after its implementation. This direct comparison helps in assessing the impact of the protocol on reducing fall rates. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of the protocol. Analyzing costs incurred (Choice B), conducting a chart review (Choice C), or consulting with a physical therapist (Choice D) may provide valuable information but do not specifically evaluate the protocol's effectiveness in preventing falls.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.

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