Adult Health 2 Final Exam

Questions 48

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Adult Health 2 Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

Question 2 of 5

The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. What action is best for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusal can guide appropriate interventions, respecting client autonomy while addressing any underlying issues. Choice B is not the best course of action as involving family members may not address the client's specific concerns. Choice C, while important, may not directly address the immediate refusal to bathe. Choice D does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal and may not lead to a resolution.

Question 3 of 5

The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a 1.2mL injection to a 4-year-old. Which is the best site to administer an IM injection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Vastus Lateralis. The vastus lateralis site is recommended for IM injections in small children due to its large muscle mass, making it suitable for injections in pediatric patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The radial artery is not a site for IM injections; it is a site for arterial puncture. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential risks, such as injury to the sciatic nerve. The rectus femoris is not typically used for IM injections in children, as other sites like the vastus lateralis are more commonly preferred.

Question 4 of 5

A client reports feeling anxious and having trouble sleeping lately. What non-pharmacological intervention should the nurse suggest first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct non-pharmacological intervention the nurse should suggest first for a client experiencing anxiety and sleep issues is practicing relaxation techniques before bed. Relaxation techniques like deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, or mindfulness meditation can help reduce anxiety levels and promote better sleep naturally. Starting an exercise program (Choice A) can be beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for anxiety and sleep problems. Keeping a sleep diary (Choice B) can help identify patterns but does not directly address anxiety. Using sleep-inducing medications (Choice D) should be considered only after non-pharmacological interventions have been tried.

Question 5 of 5

After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse's immediate intervention? The client who is...

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.

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