HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
Question 2 of 5
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote airway clearance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most appropriate intervention to promote airway clearance in a client with pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators (Choice A) may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) can be beneficial in certain cases but may not be the initial intervention for promoting airway clearance. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help improve oxygenation but does not specifically target airway clearance in pneumonia.
Question 3 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This is crucial to help prevent esophageal irritation. Option A is correct as alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Option C is incorrect because the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication, not lie down. Option B is incorrect and a duplicate of Option A.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reporting signs of bleeding is essential while on anticoagulant therapy to prevent complications.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for HESI-LPN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your HESI-LPN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access