Metric Conversions for TEAS 7

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To convert kilometers to meters, you multiply by 1000 since 1 kilometer is equal to 1000 meters. Therefore, 345 kilometers x 1000 = 345,000 meters. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't account for the conversion factor. Choice C is incorrect as it adds an extra zero. Choice D is incorrect as it adds two extra zeros. Choice B is the correct answer as it correctly converts 345 kilometers to meters by multiplying by 1000.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 cups in one pint. A pint is equivalent to 2 cups in the US customary system of measurement. This conversion is based on the fact that 1 pint is equal to 16 fluid ounces, and 1 cup is equal to 8 fluid ounces. Therefore, 16 fluid ounces (1 pint) divided by 8 fluid ounces (1 cup) equals 2 cups. The other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the conversion between pints and cups. Choice A (1 cup) is incorrect as it does not match the conversion factor. Choices C (3 cups) and D (4 cups) are incorrect as they provide values that do not align with the correct measurement relationship between pints and cups.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: To convert 0.075 mg to micrograms, you need to multiply by 1000 since there are 1000 micrograms in a milligram. So, 0.075 mg * 1000 = 75 mcg. Therefore, the correct answer is D: 750 mcg. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not correctly convert milligrams to micrograms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 16 ounces. One pint is equivalent to 16 fluid ounces. This is a standard conversion in the US customary system. To arrive at this answer, you need to know that there are 2 cups in a pint and 8 fluid ounces in a cup, giving a total of 16 ounces in one pint. Choice A (12 ounces) is incorrect because it does not match the standard conversion of one pint to 16 ounces. Choice C (8 ounces) is incorrect as it represents the amount in one cup, not a pint. Choice D (20 ounces) is incorrect as it exceeds the standard conversion for one pint.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To convert 0.75 to a fraction, we write it as 75/100 and simplify to 3/4 by dividing both numerator and denominator by the greatest common divisor, which is 25. Choice A (3/4) is correct as it represents 0.75 in simplest form. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not equal 0.75 when converted to a fraction. Choice B (7/10) simplifies to 0.7, choice C (15/20) simplifies to 0.75 but is not in simplest form, and choice D (1/2) simplifies to 0.5.